⚖️

Polity

Constitution, Parliament, Judiciary, New Criminal Laws & Governance — 15 sub-topics

116
Total Questions
13
Sub-topics
12%
Of All Questions
Home › Polity

Sub-topic Distribution

Top 13 sub-topics by question count in Polity

All Sub-topics & Questions

Click any sub-topic to expand and view all its questions. ✓ marks the correct answer where available.

1
New Criminal Laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)
20 Qs
Q.42
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam(BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:
  • A.Physical exhibits from crime scenes.
  • B.Hand-written diaries.
  • C.Digital and electronic evidence,
  • D.Oral confessions.
Q.43
Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita(BNSS), what is the maximum period for which a person can be held in police custody in total, even if remanded periodically by a magistrate?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.43
Which of the following changes has Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS) brought to criminal procedure?
  • A.Replaced all IPC sections
  • B.Video-recorded confessions
  • C.Presumption of guilt
  • D.Scrapping of all bail rights
Q.42
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam(BSA) aims to align Indian evidence law with advancements in:
  • A.Forensic science and digital technology
  • B.Traditional agricultural practices
  • C.Ancient philosophical texts
  • D.Oral storytelling traditions
Q.42
Which section of Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS) mandates video-recording of search and seizure operations? onda ame grant aie (stgagaga) At ar at arr cenit sie edt aang Hi cifsat Raifsr arard aect 8?
  • A.Section 50
  • B.Section 62
  • C.ORT 62
  • D.Section 105
Q.42
The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023, consolidates and amends provisions related to which branch of law? Civil Procedure Law fSfeer wfea HA | aie Substantive Law
  • A.aoRafaep Act HA
  • B.Evidence Law
  • C.aed SrA
  • D.Contract Law
Q.42
Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS) ensures access to FIR through which portal? uRdia are geen afear (Atyagaga) fers clés & areay S Casa aa Usa EPigya Hedi 8?
  • A.National Crime Portal
Q.43
The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS) now explicitly defines and criminalizes ‘organized crime' and ‘petty organized crime’. Which of the following is an example of an offense that might fall under ‘petty organized crime’ under Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita(BNS)? ard =a afar (ateava) aa ‘anise soe sie ‘ote dafea aoe al ae Sa | oR sie onoaflea sar 21 Peafifaa Fa ala a aoe ada are afeen (stave) & aga 'wle UafSa store & stale at Aaat 8?
  • A.Terrorist Act
  • B.adenaret Ger
  • C.Large-scale Drug Trafficking
  • D.Theft committed by a gang
Q.42
What is the maximum detention period a Magistrate can authorize under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita(BNSS), 2023, for offences punishable with less than 10 years, before default bail applies? aftada frat feeraa sate after aX aera 8?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.42
Under Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS), the period for default bail in minor offences is capped at?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.44
In Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS), which court may grant default bail after time limit lapses?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.30
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, what is required for digital evidence to be presented in court?
  • A.It must be presented in hard copy form only
  • B.It must come from a reliable, government-approved platform
  • C.ue fasta, Sear Err ara wie S aay are
  • D.It must be accompanied by a valid digital signature
Q.28
Which major legal framework does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, seek to align with in recognizing electronic evidence? uRdia aaa afi, 2023 stage aren at Arca 24 & fey fers pe caret aa & are Sefer SAT aTeaT 8?
  • A.The Information Technology Act, 2000
  • B.Sern wrench sifirers, 2000
  • C.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Q.31
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 has been enacted to replace which previous law? oredta aan afafrar, 2023 fers ftrsct arg at seers & fery arfetrattra fern rar 8?
  • A.Indian Penal Code
  • B.Contract Act, 1872
  • C.Consumer Protection Act
  • D.Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Q.30
. What is one of the major reforms introduced in BNSS, 2023 with respect to FIRS?
  • A.FIRS must be filed by a judge
  • B.unangeme ~ararefiar gre auf At art ae
  • C.E-FIRs are permitted for certain offenses
  • D.Ho oreereh & fery S-eeHoMgaM A oryAha &
Q.31
Under the BSA, 2023, oral evidence must be:
  • A.Direct and related to what the witness saw or heard
  • B.Based on assumptions
  • C.eRUTsHt UR greta
  • D.Only admissible if in English
Q.26
Which of the following is a key requirement for admissibility of an electronic record under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), even if it’s a secondary evidence? onda aaa afar (stay) & aga scarica Rats ht eerie & fay Pate 4 a ata at age wreea 8, et dt ae feta ater It must be handwritten and notarized U6 Beafetaa sik atest Star ae
  • A.It must be part of a hard drive submitted to court
  • B.It must be published in the Gazette
  • C.It must be accompanied by a certificate
  • D.gaa are va var oa ft et ares
Q.29
In BNSS, what provision strengthens witness protection during trial?
  • A.Anonymous jury system
  • B.Use of video conferencing and identity concealment for vulnerable witnesses
  • C.Witnesses can choose to record statements via SMS
  • D.Witnesses are not required to attend trial
Q.31
One of the key technological shifts in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) includes the introduction of which of the following systems? Al-based trial judgment generator Varg-arrentta Tetaror Profa SReR Drone-based crime scene scanning
  • A.gir-orentta oor earet SPT
  • B.Virtual trial-only courts for all offenses
  • C.e-FIR, e-summons and e-warrants
  • D.S-UOIGSIR, $-GHA afk g-aRe
Q.36
Which of the following is the objective of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam? Prafefaa a a at a anda cara afftian a se20 8?
  • A.Reduce the role of evidence in trials
  • B.yaaa A aren Bt ype ar ear
  • C.Ensure admissibility of modern evidence
  • D.oneftas aren at eteariat aaa ae
2
Welfare Schemes & Government Policies
17 Qs
Q.43
Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A) : The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains. Reason (R) : It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication.

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.44
What is the age range for farmers to enrol in the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.43
Consider the following statements about the eSanjeevani initiative: Statement 1: eSanjeevani OPD enables remote doctor consultations for citizens via online mode. Statement 2: eSanjeevani AB-HWC connects citizens with Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centers (AB-HWC). Which of the above is/are correct? aue 2: ¢-aoftett vat-gaseqat amet at sear ARa MRA Ve Hea chat (Vet-gaseyet) S citsct 31 Only Statement 1 is correct chat Hest 1 ats Only Statement 2 is correct chact est 2 Gets Both 1 and 2
  • A.1 of 2 at
  • B.Neither 1 nor 2
  • C.Aat1 sieaet2
  • D.[Not Answered
Q.43
The slogan "Har Khet Ko Pani" belongs to: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana URARTTa opie face atstat Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
  • A.Dera weet Fat ator
  • B.Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
  • C.Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
  • D.usta off farare atsra
Q.38
What does the designation HLVM3 stand for in the Gaganyaan mission context? Tartar Pars ab eek A LVS eer aT ore 8?
  • A.| ia LvM3
  • B.amet LvM3,
  • C.| ii Lvm3
Q.43
Which scheme promotes crop diversification through cluster-based planning? old ot ator aerex arena ahora & areas & hac fafaetieent at aserar ect 8?
  • A.RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana)
Q.45
Which Indian initiative under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) aims to improve micro-climate resilience through community-led water harvesting in semi-arid zones? wera URada ch ferg asta sre ate (VagUeta) ch aed foe ude eet ar seas ael-gyop at A aAaTa sh Aged alet Get PIA a area o yen crerary oritenos A Gere HET 8?
  • A.Jal Urja Yojana
  • B.et Goll asa
  • C.Climate Resilient Watershed Programme
  • D.aetary crete GemeoT HrashA
Q.37
Which of the following statements about the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2023 is correct? Gait sfsar gu tra (Kiva) chargargolt 2023 & are A Prafeiaa FS als a ers et B?
  • A.The KIYG 2023 were held in four cities of Maharashtra.
  • B.The games included 20 disciplines and no demo sport.
  • C.Geil 4 20 Ga ania 4 aie alg Sat Ga AMT aT
  • D.The event lasted for 13 days across 15 venues.
Q.27
The "Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)" is a flagship initiative to promote innovation and entrepreneurship in India. Which of the following is a key component or program under AIM? "seal salar Fart (Varsy)" Rd A AAPA sik sata at sara oF & fery VR WE Vedi 1 Prafeaa A S ala aT USMeTA det Uh WAS een oT arena 8?
  • A.| i India Centers
  • B.Startup India Seed Fund Scheme
  • C.Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs)
  • D.Deas ateret faenra ator (dteachdtarg)
Q.26
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the Gaganyaan mission? Prafafaa 4 & ata ar rar fart ar ary at 8?
  • A.Increased global collaborations in space science
Q.49
Which ISRO mission first discovered lunar hydration?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.28
Which government scheme aims to provide financial support to senior citizens who may have lost their means of sustenance? fore Geant ahora ar eI SA afte aMRent at facta aeraa Warr Hear @, forshy sort ohtfaent apr ares Gt fears?
  • A.Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS)
  • B.[Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
  • C.aieet Oar ater (udtarg)
Q.49
Consider the following statements on the Green Hydrogen Mission: 1. It aims to make India a global hub for production and export of green hydrogen. 2. The mission targets production of 10 MMT by 2030. 3. Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis using renewable energy. 1, SST Ses UR at eka Sager & sare oie Pata ar afer ae aA 21 Only 1 and 2 are correct
  • A.Only 2 and 3 are correct
  • B.Only 1 and 3 are correct
  • C.All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  • D.aot 1, 2 of 3 wets
Q.26
India’s first interplanetary mission is: ‘Ud al User sieeagla fart 3:

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.28
Which government initiative focuses on improving urban infrastructure, including water supply, sewerage, and urban transport, in cities across India? pla ot aad cect ued He & ved A ore oral, data site edt oases aida aed Serge A Gere oF Aka 8?
  • A.‘Smart Cities Mission
  • B.are fa ara
  • C.Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
  • D.‘Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban)
Q.28
The "Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)" aims to address the housing shortage in urban areas. Which of the following approaches is a key component of this scheme to achieve its objectives? “eras ora ator - eet (Cigryag-g)" ar sexe ares Aat A stare At ae at qR Hea 61 Pee A a ala ar gape say ‘Seal at orca Het & ferg sa ahora UH WS Tesh 8? Primarily focusing on providing rental housing for migrant workers. Fer Sa a are siftrent ob feng fenerd oe atrare Surereel chert OR MTA chika HAT! Providing financial assistance to beneficiaries for the construction, purchase, or enhancement of affordable housing. firnradt arava & Prato, ede a daha & fery eronfetat at fasta serra Wars ear
  • A.Mandating the use of only indigenous building materials in all PMAY-U projects.
  • B.ast dieagard-g oRatsrrisit 4 hac eaeaht Pato areht & goat at aPard eral
  • C.Concentrating housing development efforts in Tier-1 and Tier-2 cities.
  • D.fear-1 of fear-2 sree A crave facta paral og ear aise aA!
Q.29
Which government scheme aims to provide social security to workers in the unorganized sector?
  • A.Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
  • B.Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
  • C.National Health Mission (NHM)
3
Parliament & State Legislature
17 Qs
Q.39
Fill in the blanks: The Parliament can create a new All-India Service by a resolution in the z Raa RUT We:
  • A.Rajya Sabha
  • B.Was
  • C.Lok Sabha
  • D.State Assemblies
Q.41
Arrange the following steps in the correct legislative process for the passage of a Money Bill in India: A) Introduction of Money Bill in Lok Sabha B) Passage in Lok Sabha C) Transmission to Rajya Sabha D) Presentation for President's assent urd 4 oa fatto oa at At at fart ofr 4 Prafatea seo at aafera hfe:
  • A.Cc) aeraen A der
  • B.D) weute st eflepfat a fery Wega RAT
Q.40
How are Money Bills handled in both Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures with bicameralism under the Constitution? Rajya Sabha must approve Money Bills within 14 days BeTIHT cat ert faekerent at 14 feat ch sftae Ao Sat eit In States, the Legislative Council can amend a Money Bill within 14 days
  • A.Both Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils have equal powers on Money Bills
  • B.oF fade oR UsTeHT sik fara uRuel cat cat sar aftenr rca s
  • C.Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils can only make recommendations within 14 days
  • D.USTIHT sie faera uRae chact 14 feat & sftae fSuarkeal ae act S
Q.47
Article 246A gives power to both Parliament and State to make laws on :
  • A.HAE 246A Tae GR wT st at TROP sar Al af Sa BI
  • B.Taxation of Goods and Services
  • C.Feat oie Sarat oe TA
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Every Money Bill is a Financial Bill. 2. Every Financial Bill is a Money Bill. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Prafafaa neat oz rar fae: glad Heat F a ats ar/S et 2/8?
  • A.Only 2
  • B.Both 1 and 2
  • C.1 of 2 dat
  • D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q.49
Which authority decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill? ort at oifttearet ag Profa ctar @ fer anté ferelaen era fethacn ar at?
  • A.Finance Minister
  • B.President
  • C.| of Lok Sabha
  • D.alereayr Heat
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Parliament can create All India Services with approval of Rajya Sabha. 2. Article 312 mentions ‘Security Services' as part of All India Services. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Prafafea ae ox far Afar: 2. HywS 312 F Aran Sarai at afer ada Sarai arth wu F seta fora ars! sunlad Hert FS ala aT/aS Bet 8/8?
  • A.Only 2
  • B.Both 1 and 2
  • C.Neither 1 nor 2
  • D.Aat1 sea et2
Q.39
Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional responsibility of the Council of Ministers (CoM) is/are correct?
  • A.1) The Union Council of Ministers is collectively accountable to the Lok Sabha.
  • B.2) In states with bicameral legislatures, the State CoM is collectively responsible to the Legislative Council.
  • C.Only 2
  • D.Both 1 and 2
Q.38
Fill in the blanks: Taxes on interstate trade are restricted by Article __ unless Parliament otherwise provides. Reet Sart we:
  • A.[Not Answered
Q.40
Which of the following statements about the Finance Commission of India is correct? Its recommendations are binding on the Union and State governments. Its members enjoy a fixed tenure protected from executive removal. Sach Geert at ve Pifaya arte rere 8, Git arene Pears S aefeta star 8!
  • A.Its recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding.
  • B.gach funk aereardt weple At é sik are Su SF area et SI
  • C.It submits its report directly to the Parliament for enactment.
  • D.ae afafana & fer arot Ruté da dae at veqa Hea 3!
Q.40
Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha and choose the correct option: 1) Rajya Sabha is a continuing house of the Parliament, immune to dissolution under any circumstance. 2) Rajya Sabha members serve staggered six-year terms, with one-third retiring every two years. Teen & a A Pafeiea Het ox fra cAifiay sik at fences gfag:
  • A.2) mea & Gas we at & arta & ferg dar axe @, ferrd a vs-ers sas a at ad Ff aahqa aa S1
  • B.Only 1
  • C.Only 2
  • D.Both 1 and 2
Q.41
Fill in the blanks: The Rajya Sabha’s special power under Art 249 allows it to authorise Parliament to legislate on a List subject. Rea PUTT HE:
  • A.oTyess 249 & aga tora fasta safes Ta Gag at aah & fava we ara sar & fery aifttepa eet 81
  • B.We
  • C.Union
  • D.Concurrent
Q.40
Fill in the blanks: A Bill that “imposes a new tax” is categorised at the Centre as a Bill. Raat UF AE:
  • A.Col
  • B.Ordinary
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 263 empowers Parliament to establish Inter-State Council. 2. The Council can investigate inter-state disputes. 3. Its composition includes PM and Union Ministers. Which of the above is/are correct? Prafafea aert oz fear Aifay: 1, ape 263 Fae at saris ous eaftla aes HT AR cat 31 sadad FS ata ar/a et 8/8?
  • A.2 and 3 only
Q.43
Under Article 352, what legislative consequence follows a Proclamation of National Emergency in India? Awe 352 & sera ya F asta ororaanre HI ule & are aa facet ufos star 8?
  • A.States retain exclusive control over the State List
  • B.aedt at aoa ae ux fase Paar area 8
  • C.Parliament car legislate on any matter in the State List
  • D.Rajya Sabha’s approval is required for all State Bills
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 246A grants exclusive power to Parliament to make laws on GST. 2. States have no legislative power over intra-state GST. 3. GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Prafafea aert oz fear Aifary: 1. see 246A dae at hyad wR ar aad ar fate aifflene Wary aT BI suntan Herat Fa als a1/a at 8/8?
  • A.2 only
  • B.1only
  • C.1,2 and3
Q.30
The Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883-84 was related to: 1883-84 a geae fare fararg Prafefea @ aafta en:
  • A.The imposition of new taxes on agricultural produce.
  • B.pis soo WR Ay aR TAT
  • C.The issue of allowing Indian judges to try European offenders in criminal cases.
  • D.urdta -ararehtait at omererfttes arreit A atte sorta oe year wears Hr sTAvA SF aT ET
4
Union & State Executive (President, PM, Governor)
15 Qs
Q.42
Which of the following is true regarding the Anglo-Indian representation in State Assemblies?
  • A.The Governor still nominates one Anglo-Indian member to the Assembly.
Q.49
Which Article enables the President to establish an Inter-State Council?
  • A.Article 263
  • B.Article 264
  • C.Article 312
  • D.Article 262
Q.40
Which of the following correctly reflects the legal implication of Article 255 regarding presidential or governor's assent to bills?
  • A.State law is void without written Governor assent.
  • B.Mention of assent is mandatory for validity.
  • C.Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.
  • D.President's assent must precede legislative passage to be valid.
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. The Governor can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. 2. The President has no such power regarding the Lok Sabha. Which of the above is/are correct?
  • A.Only 1
  • B.Only 2
  • C.Both 1 and 2
  • D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q.40
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1) The Governor's discretionary power to recommend President's Rule is mentioned in Article 356(1). 2) The 41st Constitutional Amendment curtailed the Governor's term from 5 years to 4 years. 3) The Sarkaria Commission advised that Governors should not be removed before completing their term unless in rare and Prafafead 4 3 ais a/a aera aet 2/8? 1) agate ara At Scare Het At eoaarer cA ferenrells afar HT Geka sqpede 356(1) A fea vas! 2) 414 Sfaera daters 4 corare & ardent Ht 5S ae S aera 4 a are fear! 3) aepiRar sah 4 were SF eft fee aera cat Sate arene UR st S edt Aet ser eT aiey, faara eis sik aftard ukfeafaat
  • A.2 & 3 only
  • B.1 & 3 correct
  • C.1 & 2 correct
  • D.3 only
Q.40
Consider the following statements: 1) Both the Prime Minister (PM) and Chief Minister (CM) can advise dissolution of the respective Lower House. 2) Only the PM can recommend President's Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution. Which of the statements is/are correct? Prafaf@a aut oz far Afar: 1) serra (tigy) sie gers (aig) aat dt dafla Pract aes at i AeA Hl Gers 2 Gana SI Prafaf@a a @ ata a1/a aera at 8/28?
  • A.Only 1
  • B.Only 2
  • C.act 2
  • D.Both 1 and2
Q.36
Fill in the blanks: The Indian Olympic Association (10A) was officially formed in , with Sir Dorabji Tata as its founding President and Dr. A.G. Noehren as Secretary. Rear Sart We:
  • A.anda aici de (10a) at snftanttea ter F gon ou, fora Gero seqal ae cheraaht cer she afea Sf. VGH. tees FI
Q.44
Under Article 258A, what power is granted to States? APB 2580 & aga Meat at aM aafaer Warr HI Tg 8? States need Presidential assent to assign functions to Union Toul a ae at ard ates & fry agua At aeafa At sraxacay & Governor can entrust Union tasks to State Legislature with President’s consent wear went ct aaa S Sela cra cal wou faarsise at ato aad s
  • A.State Legislature can entrust Union work to State officers with Centre’s approval
  • B.wen faurisa che cht Hot a aos & afterkat at deta ard aio aaa s
  • C.State Government can, with Union's consent, assign Union functions to its officers
  • D.Tsu Ga Ge Hl AeAfa S sas afenfeal Ht Ga a are aio saci s
Q.34
Examine the statements below and select the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): India’s Dornier aircraft aid and OCC role show a shift in its development partnership with Sri Lanka towards defence Reason (R): President Disanayaka declined India's maritime security assistance and requested only cultural and financial cooperation.

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Both President and Governor can grant pardons under Article 72. 2. The Governor cannot pardon in cases of death sentence. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Prafafea aert ox rar fie: 2. aeaure Fass & Act A eras AMT & Gerd! onlad Hert FS ata ar/S Bet 8/8?
  • A.Only 1
  • B.Both 1 and 2
  • C.1 of 2 at
  • D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q.41
Fill in the blanks: Even after a Bill is passed by the State Legislature, the Governor may forward it to the for consideration. Reet Ba HE:
  • A.wea faerisa gre fade oa at & are sf, aooure va fans at Su aaa BI
  • B.Chief Minister
  • C.Speaker
  • D.Prime Minister
Q.39
Under which constitutional provision can the President of India assume legislative powers for a state?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.39
Which of the following accurately reflects the constitutional provisions and historical application of Financial Emergency under Article Prafefa 4 a att a aged 360 & aga fasta onoraaret & daenhia raurat oie tress srapratt at acter wu S earfar 8?
  • A.No Financial Emergency has ever been declared, but it allows salary cuts of SC judges.
  • B.aft off fata oraracnra cht toon at it ag 8, afea gad opts até & rane &H aaa A HA A arqafa rect 81
  • C.A Financial Emergency was declared during the 1991 economic crisis.
  • D.Article 360 allows states to withhold salaries of central employees.
Q.50
Under which Article can the President promulgate Ordinances when Parliament is not in session, and how long do these last? Wa dae aa Aa at at upule fhe orqede & aga sree GI a aene F afk a feat ra aH a] Ye S? Article 123; until Parliament reconvenes or 6 weeks thereafter HBS 123; HAG Bh YA: THA SM Ach AI Tae 6 TeaS aT Teh Article 213; until next session of state legislature
  • A.Article 356; during emergency
  • B.HPBE 356; HUTA a SRA
  • C.Article 352; during national emergency
  • D.Mortecran tame cont Mra Rel FEM who ueeorercuts.. a
Q.50
Which Article provides the President with the power to declare Financial Emergency? ol aT orqede eater at fete sraraepret eter apes cht arfeeer Wart RAT 8?
  • A.Article 352
  • B.Article 356
  • C.Article 360
  • D.Article 365
5
Federalism & Centre-State Relations
12 Qs
Q.39
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
  • A.a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022
  • B.b. States Reorganisation Act passed
  • C.c. First Central Zonal Council meeting
Q.47
Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?
  • A.Union List
  • B.State List
Q.45
Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines.
  • A.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Q.44
Which scheme supports financial services through postmen?
  • A.NSAP
  • B.IPPB
Q.40
Which of the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State legislatures is correct? au sik toe fers & dhe faench aferat & face deer A Peafeiea FS a a He aet 8?
  • A.The State legislature can legislate on matters enumerated in the Union List
  • B.wen faurisa de at 4 adie Are Ue AR FAT Aha S
  • C.The Union legislature can legislate on matters in the Concurrent List only with State approval
  • D.ada faurrisa anadt at & fawat ue hhact ton Al ipa S at ara ga Genel Be
Q.49
Consider the following statements: 1. Delegated legislation is made by administrative authorities. 2. It cannot be challenged in a court of law. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Prafafaa aert ox fra ie: 2. 3a aaa A ate set At ot Gene sagan Hut A a ats a1/a set 8/8?
  • A.Only 2
  • B.Both 1 and 2
  • C.1 of 2 at
  • D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. The Concurrent List allows both Centre and States to legislate. 2. In case of conflict, State law prevails over Union law. Which of the above is/are correct?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.38
By which Constitutional Amendment was education transferred to the Concurrent List? fora dfaara Garters Err fan at eaadi ae F earataha fora var?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.38
Fill in the blanks: The Union Home Minister chairs a Zonal Council meeting as chairman. Raa BU WR:
  • A.Uda
  • B.AMG
Q.44
What is the role of Article 263 in maintaining Union-State coordination? Settles taxation disputes wee ferarel oar FTeRT Creates Zonal Councils acta okwal ar Frater
  • A.Provides Inter-State Council framework
  • B.Enforces Emergency Provisions
  • C.TOTeeaTe Maa Bt ALY RATS
  • D.[Not Answered
Q.43
Carefully read the following two statements and pick the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): The government's revenue receipts don't bring with them any burden of repayment or financial liability. Reason (R): These earnings aren't meant to be returned and generally come from either tax-related sources or other regular inflows.
  • A.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B.Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • C.A is true, but R is false
  • D.A is false, but R is true
Q.29
Which government scheme aims to provide financial assistance to women Self-Help Groups (SHGs)?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

6
Constitutional Amendments
9 Qs
Q.41
Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct?
  • A.1) Article 270 governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and States, including proceeds from GST.
  • B.2) After the 101st Constitutional Amendment, Article 270 includes provisions for distributing revenue from Union taxes and GST.
  • C.3) The GST Compensation Cess is also shared between the Union and States under Article 270.
  • D.1 and 3 only
Q.50
Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was abrogated by which constitutional mechanism?
  • A.Presidential Order under Article 370(3)
  • B.Amendment by Parliament under Article 368
Q.39
As per Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the GST Council's decisions require what kind of majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting?
  • A.Simple majority
  • B.Three-fourths majority
  • C.Two-thirds majority
  • D.Half majority
Q.41
Which Constitutional Amendment Act is often referred to as the “Mini-Constitution” due to the extensive changes it introduced to the indian Constitution? unde dfaur 4 aoe uRada at & areor fesd Steers Sates afeaa at ora: "ory after" ae Gre 8?
  • A.44th Amendment Act, 1978
  • B.52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  • C.52at dates afta, 1985
  • D.42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Q.4
Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. GST Council constituted 2. Constitution (101st Amendment) Act enacted 3. GST launched Choose the correct chronological sequence: Prafetea at areata an 4 arate ae: el rene aA GA:

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 131A gave High Courts exclusive power to decide on central laws’ validity. 2. It was repealed by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment. Which of the above is/are correct? Prafef@a ae oy fra Afar:
  • A.1, yee 131A Fea “aera at aedta aaa Mt aera oR Profe ct apr fasts ofan Sar 3!
  • B.2. 3 43a eifererrs Sattert grat Pree are fea aT!
  • C.Only 1
Q.41
Through which Constitutional Amendment was Article 21A introduced, mandating free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for children between 6 and 14 years of age? feo Saunt Gaiters ch Arey S atqede 21A Gar fepar var er, foray 6 S14 ae Al ang & areal & fery qua oie afrard fen at Atferes afta a wu A afta serra Tea a1?
  • A.42nd Amendment Act
  • B.| ih Amendment Act
  • C.93rd Amendment Act
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. The GST Council makes binding recommendations on GST rates. 2. Article 246A allows States to legislate on intra-state supply of goods and services. Which of the above is/are correct? Prafafaa aerit ox rar fre:
  • A.2. HAWS 246A Toast at aeqail sie Sarai Hr ofae-weta sighs UR aA TAM AT ora Sat V1
Q.42
Which Constitutional Amendment made it mandatory for States to establish Panchayati Raj Institutions as units of local self- fra daenias Saites 4 aout & fery eure waa Ht gergat & Su F carat wat Sensi H eaoay Her sPrars war Fear?
  • A.42nd Amendment
  • B.74th Amendment
  • C.73rd Amendment
  • D.73a Baier
7
Salient Features of the Constitution
7 Qs
Q.36
Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true? 1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India 2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 3. He served as CJI from 2023
  • A.1 and 2 only
  • B.2 and 3 only
  • C.1 and 3 only
  • D.1, 2, and 3 all are true
Q.40
A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by each House within how many months?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.47
Article 50 is part of which section of the Constitution?
  • A.Fundamental Duties
  • B.Directive Principles of State Policy
  • C.feroa alfa & fares Pegi
  • D.Fundamental Rights
Q.49
Which Article allows Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List during a National Emergency? ool OT orqede upla onorceanrel & chr Hae ah tor Eel ch fone Faw oR ara gas Al arqfel Sar BV?
  • A.Article 250
  • B.Article 256
  • C.Article 254
  • D.Article 352
Q.43
If the price of a product goes up by 10% and, as a result, the quantity demanded falls by 20%, how would you classify the demand? afe fereft scare ci tara 10% ae one @ sie uRomrereu, Ara Al ATT 20% oA st GT B, at oa AIT cat hat afipa Het? Demand is elastic (elasticity greater than 1) HiT cihrer @ (eta 1 a sift) Demand is inelastic (elasticity less than 1)
  • A.An acre @ (ata 1 S ha)
  • B.Demand is unitary elastic (elasticity equals 1)
  • C.AMT Garret citar @ (airs 1 ch aera 8)
  • D.Demand is perfectly elastic (elasticity is infinite)
Q.30
What technological advancement is explicitly incorporated in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 for faster justice Ra =a faaenr & fry aredia aries Grant deat, 2023 4 fea aaticht ofa at are wa S ante esa rar 8?
  • A.Use of blockchain in contracts
  • B.Electronic recording of witness testimony
  • C.Tate cht Taret ht sctagires Repifsa
  • D.Live broadcast of trials
Q.41
Fill in the blanks: During a Financial Emergency, the salaries of judges can be reduced by the 5 Raat Bart we:
  • A.fasta ororaanret & ae, ararefait a art A ach A on aa 31
  • B.Chief Justice
  • C.Finance Commission
8
Judiciary (Supreme Court & High Courts)
6 Qs
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Supreme Court can transfer cases from one High Court to another. 2. Article 139A was introduced by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the above is/are correct? Prafafaa aerit ox fra afte: 1, Safes UareTa Yew Sea TTT S GAR Teg UTaTeTa A ATA cal VIMAR He Tea B1 2. HAS 139A 42d Salers |rI Weqa fear aT aT! Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2
  • A.1 of 2 dat
  • B.Neither 1 nor 2
  • C.Aat1 se aet2
  • D.[Not Answered
Q.40
Which of the following disputes falls under the Supreme Court's exclusive original jurisdiction as per Article 131 of the Indian Constitution? undia dfaur & aged 131 & agar Prafet@a a a ats aT fare aber areca & area Het safle & stevia otra 8?
  • A.Inter-State water disputes
  • B.ser-zredhe wet Ferere
  • C.Election disputes of MPs and MLAs
  • D.HR Disputes between Centre and one or more States
Q.50
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 262 empowers Parliament to set up tribunals for river disputes. 2. The Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction in such disputes. Which of the above is/are correct? Prafafea auat ox far fifa:
  • A.1, ayaa 262 Tae at rat faarel & fry arate enita Het Hr sia tat 81
  • B.Only 2
  • C.Both 1 and 2
  • D.1 HR 2 at
Q.46
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 131 provides exclusive original jurisdiction to High Courts in federal disputes. 2. The Supreme Court can adjudicate disputes between States under Article 131. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).

Q.33
What does the term "Zero FIR" imply under the new law?
  • A.FIR can be filed at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction
  • B.FIR can be withdrawn at zero cost
  • C.FIR can be digitally deleted if not verified
  • D.FIR can be filed without police verification
Q.34
What does the BSA, 2023 provide about secondary evidence (like photocopies or scanned documents)? teary, 2023 fedtaes aren (a wrictenth on ear fey ay aeaTay) & ae A aa EA RAT 8?
  • A.It is always preferred over primary evidence
  • B.34 wten saftey area S corer rattan et are 8
  • C.It is admissible only if the original is lost, destroyed, or unavailable for valid reasons
  • D.It must be printed in color only
9
Constitutional, Statutory & Non-Statutory Bodies
4 Qs
Q.37
Read the following statements regarding K. Sanjay Murthy's recent appointment as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: 1. He took office as the CAG in November 2024 after the term of Girish Chandra Murmu. 2. The CAG is a constitutional office, which is appointed by the President under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. 3. The CAG's term is only five years and cannot be repeated. Which of the above is/are correct?
  • A.1 and 2 only
Q.39
Fill in the blanks: Zonal Councils were created by the Act, 1956. Rear Sart HR:
  • A.States Reorganisation
  • B.aor Gtior
  • C.Finance Commission
  • D.Panchayati Raj
Q.32
. Who joined as the CEO of NITI Aayog in February 2023?
  • A.Parameswaran lyer
  • B.URAg Ra rR
  • C.V.K. Paul
  • D.B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
Q.40
Which of the following accurately describes the legal and institutional basis of "Special Category State" status in India?
  • A.It is a constitutional provision granted under Article 275.
  • B.It is defined in the Constitution and recommended by the Inter-State Council.
  • C.It is not mentioned in the Constitution and was granted by the National Development Council.
  • D.It is conferred by the Finance Commission under Article 280.
10
Fundamental Rights
4 Qs
Q.48
Which of the following was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
  • A.Right to Equality
  • B.SAM aT siftreare
  • C.| i to Property
  • D.Right to Freedom
Q.48
The concept of “Reasonable Classification” as a limitation to the Right to Equality (Article 14) was established in which case? Samal & afar (sqede 14) oe va Sh ch Sa A “BAe aeffeneor” At sraereon fers aTAct A ead Ht ag et?
  • A.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  • B.shararia URAT SATA chee UST
  • C.State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
  • D.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Q.34
Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Pakistan’s move from a ‘Positive List’ to a ‘Negative List’ of 1209 tariff lines for Indian goods under SAFTA was challenged by India as a violation of the agreement. Reason (R): Article 23 of the SAFTA Agreement permits member countries to make unilateral tariff reservations in case of political fhe fag ag erat at atfiteners (A) of arreot (R) & ea F fafa we oftenera (A): SAFTA ch aga siecle aeqail & fery 1209 eftes oneal At ‘serreretes Set S Tene aetl' A onfeeears & cea St AAT wage cr Sects Fara By Pitt & eft ‘wT (R): SAFTA GHahte cI Hyde 23 Tae eat at orifaen srareata Ar Rafa A van Chew sary Het Hr seqAfa ar V1 Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. AGH R at wea, afar R, A ar Bet eaBTaROT TET BI Ais true, but R is false.
  • A.AWG, afer R ora 8
  • B.Ais false, but R is true.
  • C.AeA B, Hert RAG Sl
  • D.[Not Answered
Q.48
Which Article of the Constitution confers the right to constitutional remedies, and how is it linked to Fundamental Rights? Sears or att at oede Saenftes SoaT ar aifllenre ers Hea 8, site ae Ahern aiftrenret S a Gs 8?
  • A.Article 32; it is called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution
  • B.Article 226; it is a protective mechanism for Directive Principles
  • C.Article 21; it deals with personal liberty only
  • D.ogee 21; ae ae aafserra eaciaar B Gaff
11
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
3 Qs
Q.43
What is the primary objective of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India?
  • A.To establish a common criminal law for all citizens.
  • B.To unify direct and indirect tax laws.
  • C.To provide a common set of personal laws for all citizens, irrespective of religion.
  • D.To standardize administrative procedures across all states.
Q.29
Which Indian state has become the first to implement the Uniform Civil Code (UCC)? ot a anda ter Sar are aise (Gah) ar Het are Use WoT a TTS?
  • A.SaaS
  • B.Goa
  • C.Maharashtra
  • D.FERIE
Q.34
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) primarily aims to:
  • A.Replace criminal laws
  • B.Abolish parliamentary democracy
  • C.Establish uniform laws on civil matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance
  • D.Regulate foreign trade
12
Making of the Indian Constitution
1 Qs
Q.31
The Regulating Act of 1773 primarily introduced changes in the Company's administration in which two distinct areas?
  • A.Company's Judicial system and revenue collection.
  • B.Company's Military strategy and trade regulations.
  • C.Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.
  • D.Company's relations with princely states and foreign policy.
13
Indian Political System & Parties
1 Qs
Q.38
What is the minimum age required to contest the Presidential election in india?

Options not extracted (OCR issue).